1.	Using the rules of significant figures, calculate the following:
6.167 + 70 =	
A)	76	
B)	80	
C)	76.167	
D)	77	
E)	76.17	

2.	The number 14.809 rounded to three significant figures is	
A)	15.0	
B)	14.9	
C)	14.81	
D)	14.809	
E)	14.8	

3.	How many significant figures are there in the result of the following calculation?
(4.321/2.8) ´ (6.9234 ´ 105)	
A)	1	
B)	2	
C)	3	
D)	4	
E)	5	

4.	The result of the following calculation has how many significant figures?
(0.4333 J/g °C) (33.12°C – 31.12°C)(412.1 g)	
A)	1	
B)	2	
C)	3	
D)	4	
E)	5	

5.	How many electrons are present in a fluorine, F, atom?	
A)	9	
B)	10	
C)	11	
D)	18	
E)	19	

6.	An atom that has 54 protons, 54 electrons, and 78 neutrons is	
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

7.	How many protons, electrons, and neutrons, respectively, does  have?	
A)	13, 13, 14	
B)	13, 10, 14	
C)	13, 13, 27	
D)	13, 10, 27	
E)	13, 13, 13	

8.	An element's most stable ion forms an ionic compound with chlorine having the formula XCl2. If the ion of element X has a mass of 89 and 36 electrons, what is the identity of the element, and how many neutrons does it have?	
A)	Kr, 53 neutrons	
B)	Kr, 55 neutrons	
C)	Se, 55 neutrons	
D)	Sr, 51 neutrons	
E)	Rb, 52 neutrons	

9.	State the maximum number of electrons allowed in each.
a. fourth principal energy level ______________ 
b. any d sublevel ______________ 
c. a 2p orbital ______________	

10.	The electron configuration for the sulfur atom is	
A)	1s22s22p63s23p2	
B)	1s22s22p63s23p4	
C)	1s22s22p63s5	
D)	1s22s22p63s23p5	
E)	none of these	

11.	Choose the correct energy level diagram for the ground state of oxygen.	
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

12.	The electron configuration of Cr3+ is	
A)	[Ar]4s23d1	
B)	[Ar]4s13d2	
C)	[Ar]3d3	
D)	[Ar]4s23d4	
E)	none of these	

13.	Which of the following exhibits the correct orders for both atomic radius and ionization energy, respectively? (smallest to largest)	
A)	S, O, F, and F, O, S	
B)	F, S, O, and O, S, F	
C)	S, F, O, and S, F, O	
D)	F, O, S, and S, O, F	
E)	none of these	

14.	Which of the following statements about the periodic table is false?	
A)	Elements in the same column have similar reactivities because their valence electrons tend to be located in the same types of orbitals.	
B)	A series of ions that are isoelectronic must have the same electron configuration.	
C)	The atomic size of the elements increases going across a period from left to right because the number of electrons increases, so they are located further from the nucleus.	
D)	It takes more energy to remove an electron from lithium than from cesium because the valence electrons in lithium are located closer to the nucleus.	
E)	Fluorine is the most electronegative element due to its size and nuclear charge.	

15.	Order the following ions from smallest to largest atomic size.

As3–, Se2–, Sr2+, Rb+, Br–	
A)	As3– < Se2– < Br– < Rb+ < Sr2+	
B)	Sr2+ < Rb+ < As3– < Se2– < Br–	
C)	As3– < Se2– < Br– < Sr2+ < Rb+	
D)	Rb+ < Br– < Sr2+ < As3– < Se2–	
E)	Sr2+ < Rb+ < Br– < Se2– < As3–	

16.	Which of the following statements is true?	
A)	The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because krypton’s p and d orbitals crowd the s orbitals.	
B)	The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because krypton contains more electrons.	
C)	The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because krypton’s nuclear charge draws the electrons closer.	
D)	The krypton 1s orbital and helium 1s orbital are the same size because both s orbitals can only have two electrons.	
E)	The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because krypton’s ionization energy is lower so it’s easier to remove electrons.	

17.	The correct formula for ammonium sulfate is	
A)	NH4SO3	
B)	NH4SO4	
C)	(NH4)2SO3	
D)	(NH4)2SO4	
E)	(NH3)2SO3	

18.	The correct name for FeO is	
A)	iron oxide	
B)	iron(II) oxide	
C)	iron(III) oxide	
D)	iron monoxide	
E)	iron(I) oxide	

19.	Give the formula for mercury(II) sulfide.	

20.	The correct name for P2O5 is	
A)	phosphorus(II) oxide	
B)	phosphorus(V) oxide	
C)	diphosphorus oxide	
D)	diphosphorus pentoxide	
E)	phosphorus pentoxide	

21.	Which of the following has a double bond?	
A)	H2O	
B)	C2H2	
C)	C2H4	
D)	CN-	
E)	none of these	

22.	Choose the correct Lewis structure for the NH4+ ion.	
A)	
	
B)	
	
C)	
	
D)	
	
E)	none of these	

23.	Draw the Lewis structures for the following compounds to assist you in answering this question.

CBr2H2        BH3        XeCl4        SF4        HCl

Which compound has a see-saw shape?	
A)	CBr2H2	
B)	BH3	
C)	XeCl4	
D)	SF4	
E)	HCl	

24.	Draw the Lewis structures for the following compounds to assist you in answering this question.

CBr2H2        BH3        XeCl4        SF4        HCl

Which compound has bond angles of 109.5˚ around the central atom?	
A)	CBr2H2	
B)	BH3	
C)	XeCl4	
D)	SF4	
E)	HCl	

25.	Consider the following compounds:

CO        NH3        CO2        CH4        H2

How many of the compounds above are nonpolar?	
A)	1	
B)	2	
C)	3	
D)	4	
E)	5	

26.	Order the intermolecular forces (dipole-dipole, London Dispersion, ionic, and hydrogen-bonding) from weakest to strongest .	
A)	dipole-dipole, London Dispersion, ionic, and hydrogen-bonding	
B)	London Dispersion, dipole-dipole, hydrogen-bonding, ionic	
C)	hydrogen-bonding, dipole-dipole, London Dispersion, and ionic	
D)	dipole-dipole, ionic, London Dispersion, and hydrogen-bonding	
E)	London Dispersion, ionic, dipole-dipole, and hydrogen-bonding	

27.	Which of the following substances would you expect to have the lowest boiling point?	
A)	diamond	
B)	methane, CH4	
C)	sodium nitrate, NaNO3	
D)	glycerine, C3H5(OH)3	
E)	copper	

28.	Which of the following would you expect to have the highest boiling point?	
A)	F2	
B)	Cl2	
C)	Br2	
D)	I2	
E)	All of the above have the same boiling point.	

29.	All of the following are clues that a chemical reaction has taken place except	
A)	A color change occurs.	
B)	A solid forms.	
C)	The reactant is smaller.	
D)	Bubbles form.	
E)	A flame occurs.	

30.	When the following equation is balanced using the smallest possible integers, what is the number in front of the substance in bold type?

Pb(NO3)2 + K2CO3  PbCO3 + KNO3	
A)	5	
B)	4	
C)	3	
D)	2	
E)	1	

31.	Balance the following equation in standard form and determine the sum of the coefficients.

A)	3	
B)	4	
C)	6	
D)	7	
E)	14	

32.
Sodium metal reacts with water to produce aqueous sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.  Write the balanced equation for this reaction.	

33.
Write the balanced molecular equation for the reaction between aqueous solutions of lithium phosphate and sodium hydroxide.	

34.	Which drawing best represents the mixing of aqueous calcium chloride with aqueous potassium sulfate when they are mixed in stoichiometric amounts (neither reactant is limiting)?	
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

35.
Balance the equation
KI(aq) + Cl2(g) ® KCl(aq) + I2(s)	

36.
Write the molecular equation, the complete ionic equation, and the net ionic equation for the following reaction: Aqueous solutions of copper(II) nitrate and sodium hydroxide are mixed to form solid copper(II) hydroxide and aqueous sodium nitrate.	

37.	Which represents the greatest number of atoms?	
A)	50.0 g Al	
B)	50.0 g Cu	
C)	50.0 g Zn	
D)	50.0 g Fe	
E)	all the same	

38.	The number of grams in 1.15 mol of sodium carbonate is	
A)	92.2 g	
B)	0.0109 g	
C)	95. g	
D)	122. g	
E)	none of these	

39.	In the reaction

what number of grams of silver can be produced from the reaction of 33.9 g of copper?	
A)	115 g Ag	
B)	57.6 g Ag	
C)	28.8 g Ag	
D)	39.9 g Ag	
E)	0.53 g Ag	

40.	If 22.5 g of CO2 is produced in the reaction of C2H2 with O2 to form CO2 and H2O, how many grams of H2O are produced in this reaction?	
A)	9.21 g	
B)	4.61 g	
C)	18.4 g	
D)	3.07 g	
E)	none of these	

41.	Sodium and water react according to the equation

What number of moles of H2 will be produced when 4.0 mol Na is added to 1.4 mol H2O?	
A)	0.7 mol	
B)	2.8 mol	
C)	2.0 mol	
D)	1.4 mol	
E)	8.0 mol	

42.	A chemical reaction has the equation:  2A + B®C.  In which case is B the limiting reactant?
	
A)	I	
B)	 II	
C)	III	
D)	IV	
E)	None of these	

43.	Which of the following reaction mixtures would produce the greatest amount of product, assuming all went to completion?  Each involves the reaction symbolized by the equation

N2(g)  +  3H2(g)  ®  2NH3(g)	
A)	3 moles of N2 and 3 moles of H2	
B)	1 mole of N2 and 6 moles of H2	
C)	5 moles of N2 and 3 moles of H2	
D)	1 mole of N2 and 3 moles of H2	
E)	All would produce the same amount of product.	

44.		
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

45.	Consider a gas at 1.00 atm in a 5.00-L container at 20.oC. What pressure does the gas exert when transferred to a volume of 2.30 L at 43oC?	
A)	4.67 atm	
B)	2.02 atm	
C)	0.371 atm	
D)	2.34 atm	
E)	0.496 atm	

46.	Determine the pressure exerted by 2.05 mol of gas in a 2.92-L container at 32oC.	
A)	1.84 atm	
B)	51.3 atm	
C)	17.6 atm	
D)	5.38 atm	
E)	15.7 atm	

47.	The valve between a 5-L tank containing a gas at 9 atm and a 10-L tank containing a gas at 6 atm is opened. Calculate the final pressure in the tanks.	
A)	3 atm	
B)	4 atm	
C)	7 atm	
D)	15 atm	
E)	none of these	

48.	Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?	
A)	Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.	
B)	The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.	
C)	The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.	
D)	The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.	
E)	All of the above are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.	

49.	Gaseous C2H4 reacts with O2 according to the following equation:
	
What volume of oxygen gas at STP is needed to react with 3.94 mol of C2H4? (Ignore signficant figures for this problem.)	
A)	11.8 L	
B)	29.4 L	
C)	265 L	
D)	88.3 L	
E)	Not enough information is given to solve the problem.	

50.	It is found that 250. mL of a gas at STP has a mass of 1.36 g. What is the molar mass?	
A)	122 g/mol	
B)	5.44 g/mol	
C)	11.2 g/mol	
D)	22.4 g/mol	
E)	65.9 g/mol	

51.	You place 15.0 g of nitrogen gas and 15.0 g of hydrogen gas in a container fitted with a massless, frictionless piston. If the original volume of the container is 10.3 L, what is the volume after the reaction has run to completion? Assume constant temperature.

N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)	
A)	11.90 L	
B)	1.38 L	
C)	6.41 L	
D)	8.92 L	
E)	1.46 L	

52.	Hydrogen peroxide decomposes to form water and oxygen gas according to the following equation:

Suppose 143.0 g of hydrogen peroxide decomposes and all of the oxygen gas is collected in a balloon at 1.00 atm and 25oC. Determine the volume of the balloon.	
A)	4.31 L	
B)	102.8 L	
C)	51.4 L	
D)	8.62 L	
E)	none of these	

53.	A 5.10-g sample of iron is heated from 36.0oC to 75.0oC. The amount of energy required is 89.51 J. The specific heat capacity of this sample of iron is	
A)	1.78 ´ 104 J/g oC	
B)	2.22 J/g oC	
C)	0.234 J/g oC	
D)	0.450 J/g oC	
E)	0.158 J/g oC	

54.	Assume that 248.3 J of heat is added to 5.00 g of water originally at 23.0oC. What would be the final temperature of the water? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4.184 J/goC.)	
A)	11.9 oC	
B)	49.9 oC	
C)	62.9 oC	
D)	34.9 oC	
E)	none of these	

55.	A 56.3-g sample of aluminum at 95.0oC is dropped into 35.0 g of water at 40.0oC. What is the final temperature of the mixture? (specific heat capacity of aluminum = 0.89 J/goC; specific heat capacity of water = 4.184 J/goC)	
A)	54oC	
B)	–5.6oC	
C)	110oC	
D)	23oC	
E)	–11oC	

56.	Two metals of equal mass with different heat capacities are subjected to the same amount of heat. Which undergoes the smallest change in temperature?	
A)	The metal with the higher heat capacity.	
B)	The metal with the lower heat capacity.	
C)	Both undergo the same change in temperature.	
D)	You need to know the initial temperatures of the metals.	
E)	You need to know which metals you have.	

57.	As water freezes the energy in the reaction is	
A)	released	
B)	Absorbed	
C)	neither	
D)	does not change	
E)	Both a and b	

58.	During boiling which of the following statements is true?	
A)	The speed of the molecules is decreasing	
B)	The speed of the molecules is increasing	
C)	The distance between the molecules is decreasing	
D)	The distance between the molecules is increasing	

59.	How much energy is absorbed when 18g ice at 0oC is heated to 75oC?	
A)	11655j	
B)	46328j	
C)	9778j	
D)	6012j	
E)	5648j	

60.	What is the energy involved when converting 10 grams of steam at 120 C into ice at -20 C?	
A)	2618 J	
B)	-2618 J	
C)	30702 J	
D)	-30702 J	

61.	Consider the reaction
	
When a 15.5-g sample of ethyl alcohol (molar mass = 46.1 g/mol) is burned, how much energy is released as heat?	
A)	3.36 ´ 10–1 kJ	
B)	4.61 ´ 10–1 kJ	
C)	4.61 ´ 102 kJ	
D)	2.12 ´ 104 kJ	
E)	2.97  kJ	

62.		
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

63.		
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

64.		
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)		

65.	Determine the concentration of a solution made by dissolving 22.5 g of sodium chloride in 750.0 mL of solution.	
A)	0.289 M	
B)	30.0 M	
C)	0.385 M	
D)	0.513 M	
E)	16.9 M	

66.	One mole of each of the following compounds is added to water in separate flasks to make 1.0 L of solution. Which solution has the largest total ion concentration?	
A)	calcium carbonate	
B)	potassium phosphate	
C)	aluminum hydroxide	
D)	silver chloride	
E)	sodium chloride	

67.	What mass of solute is contained in 417 mL of a 0.157 M magnesium fluoride solution?	
A)	4.08 g	
B)	65 g	
C)	9.8 g	
D)	1.05 g	
E)	none of these	

68.	What volume of 17.8 M H2SO4 is required to prepare 12.0 L of 0.156 M sulfuric acid? (Ignore significant figures for this problem.)	
A)	231 mL	
B)	2.78 L	
C)	114 mL	
D)	105 mL	
E)	1.37 L	

69.	Consider the reaction 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O
What is the ratio of the initial rate of the appearance of water to the initial rate of disappearance of oxygen?	
A)	1 : 1	
B)	2 : 1	
C)	1 : 2	
D)	2 : 2	
E)	3 : 2	

70.	Consider the reaction: 4NH3 + 7O2 ® 4NO2 + 6H2O
At a certain instant the initial rate of disappearance of the oxygen gas is X. What is the value of the appearance of water at the same instant?	
A)	1.2 X	
B)	1.1 X	
C)	0.86 X	
D)	0.58 X	
E)	cannot be determined from the data	

71.	The average rate of disappearance of ozone in the reaction is found to be 7.73 ´ 10-3 atm over a certain interval of time. What is the rate of appearance of O2 during this interval?	
A)	11.6 ´ 10-3 atm/s	
B)	7.73 ´ 10-3atm/s	
C)	5.15 ´ 10-3atm/s	
D)	231 ´ 10-3atm/s	
E)	19.9 ´ 10-3atm/s	

72.	The balanced equation for the reaction of bromate ion with bromide ion in acidic solution is given by:
	
At a particular instant in time, the value of -D[Br-]/Dt is 3.5 ´ 10-3 mol/L s. What is the value of D[Br2]/Dt in the same units?	
A)	2.1 ´ 10-3	
B)	3.5 ´ 10-3	
C)	5.8 ´ 10-3	
D)	1.8 ´ 10-3	
E)	2.9 ´ 10-3	

73.	Which of the following statements best describes the condition(s) needed for a successful formation for a product according to the collision model?	
A)	The collision must involve a sufficient amount of energy, provided from the motion of the particles, to overcome the activation energy.	
B)	The relative orientation of the particles has little or no effect on the formation of the product.	
C)	The relative orientation of the particles has an effect only if the kinetic energy of the particles is below some minimum value.	
D)	The relative orientation of the particles must allow for formation of the new bonds in the product.	
E)	The energy of the incoming particles must be above a certain minimum value and the relative orientation of the particles must allow for formation of new bonds in the product.	

74.	Consider the following rate law: Rate = k[A]n[B]m
How are the exponents n and m determined?	
A)	By using the balanced chemical equation	
B)	By using the subscripts for the chemical formulas	
C)	By using the coefficients of the chemical formulas	
D)	By educated guess	
E)	By experiment	

75.	The following data were obtained for the reaction of NO with O2. Concentrations are in molecules/cm3 and rates are in molecules/cm3 × s.
[NO]o	
[O2]o	
Initial Rate	

1 ´ 1018	
1 ´ 1018	
2.0 ´ 1016	

2 ´ 1018	
1 ´ 1018	
8.0 ´ 1016	

3 ´ 1018	
1 ´ 1018	
18.0 ´ 1016	

1 ´ 1018	
2 ´ 1018	
4.0 ´ 1016	

1 ´ 1018	
3 ´ 1018	
6.0 ´ 1016	

What is the rate law?	
A)	Rate = k[NO][O2]	
B)	Rate = k[NO][O2]2	
C)	Rate = k[NO]2[O2]	
D)	Rate = k[NO]2	
E)	Rate = k[NO]2[O2]2	

76.	Tabulated below are initial  rate data for the reaction
               2Fe(CN)63– + 2I–  ® 2Fe(CN)64– + I2

Run	
[Fe(CN)63–]0	
[I–]0	
[Fe(CN)64–]0	
[I2]0	
Rate (M/s)	

1	
0.01	
0.01	
0.01	
0.01	
1 ´ 10–5	

2	
0.01	
0.02	
0.01	
0.01	
2 ´ 10–5	

3	
0.02	
0.02	
0.01	
0.01	
8 ´ 10–5	

4	
0.02	
0.02	
0.02	
0.01	
8 ´ 10–5	

5	
0.02	
0.02	
0.02	
0.02	
8 ´ 10–5	

What is the value of k?	
A)	107 M–5 s–1	
B)	103 M–3 s–1	
C)	10 M–2 s–1	
D)	50 M–2 s–1	
E)	none of these	

77.	Which of the following is true about chemical equilibrium?	
A)	It is microscopically and macroscopically static.	
B)	It is microscopically and macroscopically dynamic.	
C)	It is microscopically static and macroscopically dynamic.	
D)	It is microscopically dynamic and macroscopically static.	
E)	None of these are true about chemical equilibrium.	

Use the following to answer questions 78-80:

The following questions refer to the equilibrium shown here:
CaCO3(s)   CaO(s) + CO2(g)

78.	What would happen to the system if more CaCO3 were added?	
A)	More CaO would be produced.	
B)	The concentration of CO2(g) would decrease.	
C)	The amount of CaCO3 would decrease.	
D)	The pressure would increase.	
E)	Nothing would happen.	

79.	What would happen to the system if the total pressure were increased by adding CO2(g)?	
A)	Nothing would happen.	
B)	More CO2(g) would be produced.	
C)	The amount of CaO would increase.	
D)	The amount of CaCO3 would increase.	
E)	Equilibrium would shift to the right.	

80.	What would happen to the system if the total pressure were increased by adding Ar(g)?	
A)	Nothing would happen.	
B)	More CO2(g) would be produced.	
C)	The amount of CaO would increase.	
D)	The amount of CaCO3 would increase.	
E)	Equilibrium would shift to the right.	

81.	 For a particular system at a particular temperature there ______ equilibrium constant(s) and there _______ equilibrium position(s).	
A)	are infinite;  is one	
B)	is one; are infinite	
C)	is one; is one	
D)	are infinite; are infinite	
E)	none of these	

82.	Given the reaction A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g).  You have the gases A, B, C, and D at equilibrium.  Upon adding gas A, the value of K:	
A)	increases because by adding A, more products are made, increasing the product to reactant ratio.	
B)	decreases because A is a reactant o the product to reactant ratio decreases.	
C)	does not change because A does not figure into the product to reactant ratio.	
D)	does not change as long as the temperature is constant.	
E)	depends on whether the reaction is endothermic or exothermic.	

Use the following to answer question 83:

Nitric oxide, an important pollutant in air, is formed from the elements nitrogen and oxygen at high temperatures, such as those obtained when gasoline burns in an automobile engine. At 2000°C, K for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is 0.01.

83.	Predict the direction in which the system will move to reach equilibrium at 2000°C if 0.4 moles of N2, 0.1 moles of O2, and 0.08 moles of NO are placed in a 1.0-liter container.	
A)	The system remains unchanged.	
B)	The concentration of NO will decrease; the concentrations of N2 and O2 will increase.	
C)	The concentration of NO will increase; the concentrations of N2 and O2 will decrease.	
D)	The concentration of NO will decrease; the concentrations of N2 and O2 will remain unchanged.	
E)	More information is necessary.	

84.	For the reaction

F2(g)  2F(g)

at a particular temperature, the concentrations at equilibrium were observed to be [F2] = 1.7  10–2 mol/L and [F] = 2.0  10–4 mol/L. Calculate the value of the equilibrium constant from these data. (The units are deleted.)	
A)	3.4  10–2	
B)	1.8	
C)	4.2  105	
D)	2.4  10–6	
E)	none of these	

85.	Consider the reaction:  2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) at constant temperature. Initially a container is filled with pure SO3(g) at a pressure of 2 atm, after which equilibrium is reached. If y is the partial pressure of O2 at equilibrium, the value of Kp is:	
A)		
B)		
C)		
D)		
E)	none of these	

86.	The following reaction is investigated (assume an ideal gas mixture):
	⇌
Initially there are 0.10 moles of N2O and 0.25 moles of N2H4, in a 10.0-L container. If there are 0.064 moles of N2O at equilibrium, how many moles of N2 are present at equilibrium?	
A)	1.8 ´ 10-2	
B)	3.6 ´ 10-2	
C)	5.4 ´ 10-2	
D)	1.1 ´ 10-1	
E)	none of these	

87.	Consider the following equilibrium:
	⇌
with K = 1.6  10-5. 1.00 mole of pure NOCl and 0.927 mole of pure Cl2 are placed in a 1.00-L container. Calculate the equilibrium concentration of NO(g).	
A)	2.08 ´ 10-3 M	
B)	9.27 ´ 10-1 M	
C)	1.08  M	
D)	5.88 ´ 10-3 M	
E)	4.15 ´ 10-3 M	

88.	Consider the reaction H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI whose K = 40.8 at a high temperature. If an equimolar mixture of reactants gives the concentration of the product to be 0.50 M at equilibrium, determine the concentration of the hydrogen.	
A)	1.1 ´ 10-1 M	
B)	7.8 ´ 10-2 M	
C)	3.9 ´ 10-2 M	
D)	1.3 ´ 101 M	
E)	6.1 ´ 10-3 M	

89.	Calculate the [OH–] in a solution that has a pH of 3.65.	
A)	4.5  10–11 M	
B)	1.0  10–7 M	
C)	2.2  10–4 M	
D)	2.7  10–15 M	
E)	none of these	

90.	A solution has [H+] = 4.9 10–3 M. The [OH–] in this solution is	
A)	4.9 1011 M	
B)	4.9 10–17 M	
C)	2.0 10–12 M	
D)	1.0 10–14 M	
E)	none of these	

91.	Calculate the [H+] in a 0.086 M solution of HCN, Ka = 6.2  10-10.	
A)	1.0 ´ 10-7 M	
B)	7.3 ´ 10-6 M	
C)	5.3 ´ 10-11 M	
D)	1.5 ´ 10-5 M	
E)	none of these	

92.	Which of the species below, when dissolved in H2O, will not produce a basic solution?	
A)	SO2	
B)	NH3	
C)	BaO	
D)	Ba(OH)2	
E)	none of these	

93.	Identify the Bronsted acids and bases in the following equation (A = Bronsted acid, B = Bronsted base):
HSO3-  +  CN-    ®    HCN    +    SO32-	
A)	B     A     B     A	
B)	B     B     A     A	
C)	A     B     A     B	
D)	A     B     B     A	
E)	B     A     A     B	

94.	For weak acid, HX, Ka = 1.0  10-6. Calculate the pH of a 0.79 M solution of HX.	
A)	0.10	
B)	3.05	
C)	6.10	
D)	10.95	
E)	none of these	

95.	Saccharin is a monoprotic acid. If the pH of a 1.50   10-2 M solution of this acid is 5.53, what is the Ka of saccharin?	
A)	2.0 ´ 10-4	
B)	1.5 ´ 10-2	
C)	5.8 ´ 10-10	
D)	2.9 ´ 10-6	
E)	none of these	

96.	The pain killer morphine is a weak base when added to water. The reaction produces one mole of hydroxide ions for every one mole of morphine that dissolves. The Kb is 1.6  10-6. What is the pH of a 3.56   10-3 M solution of morphine?	
A)	4.12	
B)	9.88	
C)	5.76	
D)	10.03	
E)	none of these	

97.	Which of the following correctly labels the salts?
 HF  (Ka = 7.2 10-4)	
NH3  (Kb = 1.8 10-5)	
HCN (Ka = 6.2 10-10)	

A)	NaCN = acidic, NH4F = basic, KCN = neutral	
B)	NaCN = acidic, NH4F = neutral, KCN = basic	
C)	NaCN = basic, NH4F = basic, KCN= neutral	
D)	NaCN = basic, NH4F = neutral, KCN = basic	
E)	NaCN = basic, NH4F = acidic, KCN = basic	

98.	True or false: The species Cl- is not a good base in aqueous solution.	
A)	True. This is because Cl- is the conjugate base of a weak acid.	
B)	False. The species Cl- is a good base in aqueous solution because it is the conjugate base of a strong acid.	
C)	True. This is because Cl- is a good proton donor.	
D)	False. The species Cl- is a good base in aqueous solution because of its high electronegativity.	
E)	True. This is because water has a stronger attraction for protons than does Cl-.	

99.	Determine the molarity of a solution of the weak acid HClO2 (Ka = 1.10  10-2) if it has a pH of 1.027.	
A)	0.803 M	
B)	0.0940 M	
C)	8.54 M	
D)	13.0 M	
E)	1.606 M	

100.	Calculate the pH of a 0.005 M solution of potassium oxide, K2O.	
A)	12.0	
B)	11.7	
C)	7.0	
D)	2.3	
E)	2.0	

Answer Key

1.	B	
2.	D	
3.	B	
4.	C	
5.	A	
6.	A	
7.	B	
8.	D	
9.	a. 32
b. 10
c. 2	
10.	B	
11.	B	
12.	C	
13.	D	
14.	C	
15.	D	
16.	C	
17.	D	
18.	B	
19.	HgS	
20.	D	
21.	C	
22.	B	
23.	D	
24.	A	
25.	C	
26.	B	
27.	B	
28.	D	
29.	C	
30.	D	
31.	D	
32.	2Na(g) + 2H2O(l) ® 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)	
33.	Li3PO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) ® Na3PO4(aq) + 3LiOH(aq)	
34.	B	
35.	2KI(aq) + Cl2(g) ® 2KCl(aq) + I2(s)	
36.	Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) ® Cu(OH)2(s) + 2NaNO3(aq)
Cu2+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq) + 2Na+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) ® Cu(OH)2(s) + 2Na+(aq) + 2NO3-(aq)
Cu2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) ® Cu(OH)2(s)	
37.	A	
38.	D	
39.	A	
40.	B	
41.	A	
42.	B	
43.	D	
44.	(No Answer Provided)	
45.	D	
46.	C	
47.	C	
48.	A	
49.	C	
50.	A	
51.	D	
52.	C	
53.	D	
54.	D	
55.	A	
56.	A	
57.	A	
58.	D	
59.	A	
60.	D	
61.	C	
62.	(No Answer Provided)	
63.	(No Answer Provided)	
64.	(No Answer Provided)	
65.	D	
66.	B	
67.	A	
68.	D	
69.	B	
70.	C	
71.	A	
72.	A	
73.	D	
74.	D	
75.	C	
76.	C	
77.	D	
78.	D	
79.	D	
80.	A	
81.	B	
82.	D	
83.	B	
84.	D	
85.	D	
86.	C	
87.	A	
88.	B	
89.	A	
90.	C	
91.	B	
92.	A	
93.	C	
94.	B	
95.	C	
96.	B	
97.	D	
98.	E	
99.	A	
100.	A